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How can explaining something or not explaining something both be considered condescending?
Explaining something is considered to be insulting people's intelligence and therefore condescending. So then, if, out of respect for people's intelligence, one assumes that they already know things, it's also considered condescending to state that something is obvious. How can this contradiction be explained?
- Anonymous1 month ago
It's up to the person receiving the information to ask questions if they don't understand. What's "condescending" is assuming the person requires a detailed explanation to begin with.
- CogitoLv 71 month ago
It's not a contradiction at all.
If someone wants to be informed about something, they'll ask. Explaining something to someone who already knows the information can sound very much like you're assuming their ignorance - which is condescending.If you say that something is obvious, you're basically saying that if they don't agree with you, they're ignorant. That, too is condescending.You don't have to say that something is obvious at all.You seem to have very poor social skills.
- bluebellbkkLv 72 months ago
Strange that it doesn't strike someone as sensitive to social nuance as you think you are that if something really IS obvious, there's no need to mention it at all.
- PearlLv 72 months ago
cause some people dont like it