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Dan asked in Society & CultureEtiquette · 2 months ago

How can explaining something or not explaining something both be considered condescending?

Explaining something is considered to be insulting people's intelligence and therefore condescending.  So then, if, out of respect for people's intelligence, one assumes that they already know things, it's also considered condescending to state that something is obvious.  How can this contradiction be explained?

4 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    1 month ago

    It's up to the person receiving the information to ask questions if they don't understand.  What's "condescending" is assuming the person requires a detailed explanation to begin with.

  • Cogito
    Lv 7
    1 month ago

    It's not a contradiction at all.

    If someone wants to be informed about something, they'll ask.  Explaining something to someone who already knows the information can sound very much like you're assuming their ignorance - which is condescending.If you say that something is obvious, you're basically saying that if they don't agree with you, they're ignorant.  That, too is condescending.You don't have to say that something is obvious at all.You seem to have very poor social skills.  

  • 2 months ago

    Strange that it doesn't strike someone as sensitive to social nuance as you think you are that if something really IS obvious, there's no need to mention it at all.

  • Pearl
    Lv 7
    2 months ago

    cause some people dont like it

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