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Are the principles of rationality inherently political? Why or why not?

7 Answers

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  • 2 weeks ago

    No, quite the opposite.

  • 1 month ago

    It would be irrational to lick a fry pan immediately after cooking a burger , but there is no political function either way 

  • 1 month ago

    Politics is how we get when we are hungry babies in need of nourishment.  Mom or dad comes along and appease us or face our wrath.  It works with most of us so why quit when you have a way to get what you need?      

  • 1 month ago

    Absolutely not to me.

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  • 1 month ago

    I wouldn't say so. As I see it, politics is a struggle for control. If irrationality serves as a means to that end, then many politicians are more than happy to employ it. If a politician has already gained control, the things they choose to do might be irrational. I guess everyone has reasons for doing what they do, and in that sense their choices are rational, but if their decisions are based on misinformation or flawed reasoning, is that rational? If they're doing things that harm their constituents while benefiting themselves personally, is that rational? 

  • 1 month ago

    No.  Humans, I suppose, have the ability to make anything political but that doesn't mean that rationality is inherently political.  Rationality is defined by logic not by politics.

    Of course we have to agree what "logic" is, and that is dependent on language, which is an inexact communal thing so that can be a hurdle sometimes, but to a large degree, philosophers, and those who care about rationality more or less agree on what the "rules" of debate are.

  • Jake
    Lv 4
    1 month ago

    A person can know numerous truths, and can better distinguish truth from fiction, by reciting the rosary of the Virgin Mary every day with care and sincerity.

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