ugly asked in Arts & HumanitiesHistory · 3 months ago

It’s it true that slavery only started to exist in the 1600s?

12 Answers

Relevance
  • John
    Lv 5
    3 months ago

    When trolling at least be subtle.

    Neolithic (New Stone Age peoples) had slavery 12,000 years ago.

    Also what's your question, you've made a statement.

  • 3 months ago

    Slavery has existed from the moment the first man realised he could force another man to work for him by threatening him with a large stick.

    It is a source of constant astonishment to me that so few people realise that slavery has existed all round the world for millennia.The Atlantic slave trade is only the most recent episode of really large-scale trafficking. Every people in the world, of every colour, has enslaved or been enslaved at some point in their history. It wasn't new in the 1500s.

    And let's not forget that while the Atlantic trade wouldn't have happened without white buyers ready to buy, there would have been no slaves for them to buy at all without Africans themselves capturing their own fellow Africans and selling them to be loaded onto ships for America.

  • Ludwig
    Lv 7
    3 months ago

    Where?  No it is not true.

  • 3 months ago

    Worldwide, it was around long before that. Europeans didn't settle here until 1621, so our slavery wasn't around until after that. However, some of the Indian tribes here had slaves before we got here.

  • What do you think of the answers? You can sign in to give your opinion on the answer.
  • Anonymous
    3 months ago

    No. It already existed during Antiquity like Ancient China, Babylon and Egypt. It was started between 5,000 and 7,000 years ago.

  • F
    Lv 7
    3 months ago

    Probably since man has existed, thousands of years ago and still going strong. US black slavery was a tiny part of it, not all of it as they’d have you believe.

  • 3 months ago

    God was encouraging slavery in his biography long before that.

  • xyzzy
    Lv 7
    3 months ago

    Not even close. Much of ancient Babylonian law, such as the Code of Hammurabi (about 1754 BC) and Code of Ur-Nammu (c. 2100 BC) deals with slaves. From the Code of Hammurabi :

    15. If any one take a male or female slave of the court, or a male or female slave of a freed man, outside the city gates, he shall be put to death.

    16. If any one receive into his house a runaway male or female slave of the court, or of a freed man, and does not bring it out at the public proclamation of the major domus, the master of the house shall be put to death.

    17. If any one find runaway male or female slaves in the open country and bring them to their masters, the master of the slaves shall pay him two shekels of silver.

    18. If the slave will not give the name of the master, the finder shall bring him to the palace; a further investigation must follow, and the slave shall be returned to his master.

    19. If he hold the slaves in his house, and they are caught there,he shall be put to death.

    20. If the slave that he caught run away from him, then shall he swear to the owners of the slave, and he is free of all blame.

  • 3 months ago

    Not remotely true, no.

    Two points.

  • 3 months ago

    Slavery existed 3000 bc in Egypt

Still have questions? Get answers by asking now.