Anonymous
Anonymous asked in Arts & HumanitiesHistory · 4 weeks ago

how high was the unemployment rates in European countries right before WW1? why there were strikes over low pay in Britain at least?

i was watching a documentary on WW1 the other day and they were talking about how before WW1 there were riots and strikes etc over low pay..and that most people of working class could not even afford to feed their families. and was wondering WHY this was the case? how it was so different or not in Germany? I read that Krupps armmaments in Essen for example offered all kinds of benefits and high pay for their workers , was that the same all over Germany or how varied, depended?

2 Answers

Relevance
  • larry1
    Lv 6
    4 weeks ago
    Favourite answer

    Unemployment was generally low not a problem...instead...it was all over pay. The War started1914 all the strikes (1910-14) in Britain and France were over workers pay and social benefits, it was the workers striking so they all had jobs.

    In the UK in 1906 the liberals won election in a historic landslide and stayed in power through 1914. They legalized unions, legalized strikes, passed workers compensation, mandatory health insurance, minimum wage, old age pensions etc. France was similar but less. Up till that time worker unions had never had so much power and having won on the other worker issues were working on the last issue...higher pay using strikes as their weapon.

    Germany had no strike problem as workers there had gotten all the UK workers got (1906-14) before the UK and already had higher wages (plus Germans of that day hated strikes as being disobediant and disorderly. 

  • Tina
    Lv 7
    4 weeks ago

    Yes, there was a General Strike in Britain in 1926, miners' strikes, and Hunger Marches. This was because Britain, like the rest of the world, was hit by the Great Depression.

Still have questions? Get answers by asking now.