Anonymous asked in Social ScienceGender Studies · 1 month ago

Wasn't it (and in some cases still is) a sign of female privilege that when a traditional married couple argued the wife could just demand?

The man  leave the house and he would do it even though he was the one working to pay for and still has to pay for it after the divorce......... And there was a plethora of reasons for the argument and eventual divorce so don't be disingenuous in your answers and only focus on times the man had cheated

4 Answers

  • Foofa
    Lv 7
    1 month ago

    Legally she can't demand that he leave a jointly owned property. In many cases, especially when they're trying to not traumatize the kids, the man will choose to be the one to leave and they'll sort out the marital assets later during the divorce. But that's just a decision an individual man might make. There are just as many women, often in abuse cases, who will leave the marital home and leave the man there (again to sort it out later in court). There is no law in any US state that the woman automatically keeps the home forever and the man has to leave. They usually end up selling the house and splitting the proceeds. 

  • liz
    Lv 7
    1 month ago

    If a man just gave up his rights to the jointly-owned house then that would be his choice. That isn’t a consequence of any laws, at least not where I live. If you want to make up a funny phrase like female privilege for men using their own judgement and deciding to let the wife have the house, then nobody can stop you. 

    I suspect what people do on separation is a result of many factors including the children, their ages, whether to disturb their schooling and the reason for the split, such as infidelity, how aggrieved each person feels and other factors, such as maybe the location of their jobs and whether they can find affordable housing elsewhere.

  • Anonymous
    1 month ago

    I'm old enough to be a member of AARP and have never heard of a situation like this, at least in the USA.  It may be common in your country, but most states here are community property states.  The couple either sell the house and split the profit, or they get a professional assessment and one buys out the other's half.  I know several cases where this has happened.  Sometimes the husband buys out the wife, sometimes the wife buys out the husband.  And in the US, it's common for both parties to work and pay for the house together.  Again, things may be different wherever you are.

  • 1 month ago

    I've been around for quite a while, but I can't remember a time when a wife could just demand that a husband leave the house he was paying for (back in the ancient dusty days of the one-income family).

    However, assuming for the sake of argument that that kind of thing actually happened on a regular basis, it would make sense for the woman to be the one to stay in the home. Not for her own sake, but because she provided the majority of care to the couple's children. The innocent children deserved the stability of being able to stay in their own home with their primary caregiver. (Of course, it was best for them if they had both their parents there raising them together. Don't ask me< "But what about all the abusive fathers out there?" Obviously I'm not talking about cases where the dad was an abuser.)

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