Anonymous asked in Science & MathematicsMedicine · 4 weeks ago

Can you translate medical terms into layman’s terms?

Acute nondisplaced fracture of the inferior aspect of the left C1 lateral mass extending inferiorly into the left atlantoaxial joint.


No epidural fluid collection or abnormal spinal cord signal.


Minimal prevertebral soft tissue edema, likely posttraumatic.


Multilevel minimal degenerative disc disease without spinal canal narrowing.


Mild foraminal narrowing at multiple levels.

2 Answers

  • Anonymous
    4 weeks ago
    Favourite answer

    The C1 is the first cervical vertebra, the topmost bone of the spine. The atlantotaxial joint is where the C1 and C2 vertebrae meet.

    Acute nondisplaced fracture = injury-caused fracture that didn't move bone out of place (often describing a crack). The crack is on the lower left of the C1, extending downward.

    The spinal cord doesn't seem to be damaged or leaking.

    There's a bit of swelling in the tissue around the area, which may be related to the injury.

    The cartilage discs between the vertebrae are a little worn out but not encroaching on the spinal cord.

    The narrow passages in the spine where nerves branch off to the side look a little too narrow. (Could irritate the nerve and cause pain.)

    (Not a doctor. Not medical advice. Quack quack.)

  • 4 weeks ago

    someone took a nasty fall and should not wear heels anymore and will need more than a vacation stay here...the end. 

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