Anonymous
Anonymous asked in Society & CultureReligion & Spirituality · 7 months ago

Question about Matthew 5:17?

Every time I ask a question about the OT laws and rules, Christians say "That was only for ancient Jews, Jesus changed all that."  But then why did Jesus say "Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill"?

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  • ?
    Lv 7
    7 months ago
    Favourite answer

    OK...

    the Christians who say, "Jesus changed all that" are wrong.

    Jesus didn't change THAT. That is: he didn't change the Mosaic Law, the Mosaic Covenant, which law teaches us again

    and again

    and again

    and again

    and again

    and again

    and again

    (and lots more "agains")

    that it is for the Israelites.

    Jesus brought a new covenant to us Christians

    but the covenant between God and the Israelites is

    according to the Bible

    an everlasting covenant.

  • Hogie
    Lv 7
    7 months ago

    Read, again, carefully what you cited from Mt. 5:17. "I am not come to destroy the law OR THE PROPHETS.

    What is the "law" in this context? The legalities of the law, or the 5 books penned by Moses referred to collectively as "the law?"

    Are there "laws" codified in the prophets?  No. So how can you destroy or fulfill something in the prophets that is not found in the prophets? You can't.

    What is found in both the "law" and the "prophets" with the potential to be fulfilled or destroyed?  

    Prophesies. 

    Did He fulfill the prophesies about Him found in both the law and prophets?

    He said He did. 

    This then is not about OT laws and rules.

  • ?
    Lv 7
    7 months ago

    The fact of the matter: God The Lord Jesus Christ our Lord and Savior came to fulfill all of God laws so that we could enter the kingdom of heaven, because once we sinned against God holy word we had no longer fellowship with God, because we were dead in trespass and sin, we were in the image and likeness of the god of the dead Satan and sin, because we believed a lie, rather than the truth of God so God sold us to Satan and sin, Romans 6:23. The reason when God said that was because God did not come to destroy the laws he came to fulfill the laws so that some would become saved, So God will separate the wheat from the tares, that is the true believers from the unbelievers of God, read Revelation 17:5, read Revelation 18:4, read Psalm 51:17, read Colossians 2:13, read Ephesians 2:1-10

    Source(s): King James holy bible
  • 7 months ago

    Good question!

    Some Christians don't understand or, aren't aware of that Christ's intention wasn't to invalidate the laws of the OT, but to 'correct the record', so that we have a deeper spiritual understanding of the scriptures and prophets.  I believe the OT was combine with the NT to form the Bible, so that we can observe man's progressive understanding of Divinity.

    Fundamentally, I think Christ came to make the New Covenant with humanity, because how we've typically portray God as "elsewhere", as in the OT.  How is it possible to be "separate and apart" form an 'Omnipresent God' expressed as 'Everything', 'Everywhere', at 'All Times'?  The God Jesus spoke of in the NT is described as a 'Transcendent and Immanent Reality'.  

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  • ?
    Lv 7
    7 months ago

    Jesus came to fulfill the many prophesies of Judaism that pointed to the Messiah. Which has nothing to do with their various manmade customs.

  • lillie
    Lv 6
    7 months ago

    True, Jesus did say: “Do not think I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I came, not to destroy, but to fulfill.” (Matthew 5:17) But what does the expression “to fulfill” mean? To illustrate: A builder fulfills a contract to complete a building, not by ripping up the contract, but by finishing the structure. However, once the work has been completed to the client’s satisfaction, the contract is fulfilled and the builder is no longer under obligation to it. Likewise, Jesus did not break, or rip up, the Law; rather, he fulfilled it by keeping it perfectly. Once fulfilled, that Law “contract” was no longer binding on God’s people.

    Since Christ fulfilled the Law, are Christians obligated to keep the weekly Sabbath? Under inspiration, the apostle Paul answers: “Therefore let no man judge you in eating and drinking or in respect of a festival or of an observance of the new moon or of a sabbath; for those things are a shadow of the things to come, but the reality belongs to the Christ.”​—Colossians 2:16, 17.

    Those inspired words suggest quite a change in God’s requirements for his servants. Why the change? Because Christians are under a new law, “the law of the Christ.” (Galatians 6:2) The former Law covenant given through Moses to Israel came to an end when Jesus’ death fulfilled it. (Romans 10:4; Ephesians 2:15) 

    The change from the Israelite to the Christian system of worship could be illustrated this way: A nation may change its constitution. Once the new constitution is legally in place, people are no longer required to obey the former one. Even though some of the laws in the new constitution may be the same as those in the former constitution, others may be different. So a person would need to study the new constitution carefully to see what laws now apply. Additionally, a loyal citizen would want to know when the new constitution went into effect.

    In like manner, Jehovah God provided over 600 laws, including 10 main ones, for the nation of Israel. These included laws about morals, sacrifices, health matters, and Sabbath-keeping. However, Jesus said that his anointed followers would constitute a new “nation.” (Matthew 21:43) From 33 C.E. onward, this nation has had a new “constitution,” founded on two basic laws​—love of God and love of neighbor. (Matthew 22:36-40)

    Does this change from the Law of Moses to the law of the Christ mean that God has changed his standards? No. Just as a parent will adjust the rules he makes for his children, taking into consideration their ages and circumstances, Jehovah has adjusted the laws his people are required to obey. The apostle Paul explains the matter this way: “Before the faith arrived, we were being guarded under law, being delivered up together into custody, looking to the faith that was destined to be revealed. Consequently the Law has become our tutor leading to Christ, that we might be declared righteous due to faith. But now that the faith has arrived, we are no longer under a tutor.”​—Galatians 3:23-25.

    Source(s): New World Translation Bible Watchtower magazine
  • Anonymous
    7 months ago

    Jesus fulfilled it Himself, lived a perfect life.  We can't, we are sinners.  We are under grace, not law.  Nobody can be good enough to avoid hell. The truth is that death leads to immediate heaven or hell, depending only on whether the person believed in the Lord Jesus Christ, or not.

    The truth is that the Lord Jesus Christ loves you and wants to bless your life freely :) Most of all, Jesus wants you with Him forever, and not in hell. The truth is that every belief except one will lead to eternal torment in the lake of fire for every person. Because nothing pays for our sins except the death and blood of Jesus, the sacrifice of Jesus that is already accomplished by Him . Jesus loves you! The truth is that the Lord Jesus Christ is God, and Jesus died on the cross to pay for all of our sins in full, and then Jesus was buried, and then Jesus resurrected from the dead. Nothing else pays for our sins, not works, not deeds, not religions. So the only way to heaven and to avoid hell, is by believing in Jesus for eternal life (John 6:47), without adding any of your own works (Romans 4:5). Believe in the Lord Jesus Christ to take you to heaven, and you will be in heaven, no matter what, guaranteed. That easy, thanks to Jesus! Tell Jesus that you thank Him that you will be with Him in heaven when you die, because you believe in Jesus! It is too late to be saved, after death..

  • Anonymous
    7 months ago

    What has that to do with Levitical laws?

  • 7 months ago

    To understand the passage, it helps to know a little ancient history and a little ancient Greek.

    The old covenant (from which the old Jewish law came from) was something God offered the ancient Israelites and them only, never any Gentiles, and they accepted the offer (Ex 19:3-8).  However, they later broke that covenant so God promised them a new one (Jer 31:31-32) which came about upon Jesus' death (Lk 20:22).  The new covenant (from which we get the term "New Testament") superseded that old covenant for all (Heb 8:7,13).

    Jesus' main target audience when he preached was fellow Jews, not Gentiles.  Here's what he said to them.

    Mat 5:17  “Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them.  18  For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished. 

    Two things should be noted here.  Jesus did not come to abolish the law, but did say it would pass when all was accomplished.  The word "abolish" is a translation of the Greek word "kataluo" which means to totally destroy.  Since the OT is scripture, it still has usefulness (2Tim 3:16-17) which is why he didn't totally eliminate it from our use.  So when did was all accomplished so that it passed from being a source of commandments?

    “After this, Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, that the scripture might be fulfilled, saith, I thirst” (Jn 19:28).

    Upon Jesus' death, all was accomplished, so its contents passed on.  The epistles put it a different way.

    “For [Christ] is our peace, who made both one, and broke down the middle wall of partition, having abolished in the flesh the hostility, the law of commandments contained in ordinances, that he might create in himself one new man of the two, making peace” (Eph 2:14-15). Is this a contradiction? One passage says the law was not abolished, but this one says it was. At first glance it does appear to be a contradiction, but this is because the same word “abolish” is used to translate two different Greek words.  As noted, in Mt 5:17, the Greek word in question is “kataluo” which means to totally destroy (disintegrate, demolish). In Eph 2:15, the Greek word in question is “katargeo” which has a softer meaning and means to render inactive.  The OT has been rendered inactive, that is primarily as a source of commands.

    That's why its now okay to eat a BLT and work on Saturdays.  It was always okay for Gentiles, but upon Jesus' death, Jews were allowed the same freedoms.

  • 7 months ago

    That's just what Christians say because they either don't understand the laws and don't agree with them so they try to write it off.

    Jesus didn't bring any new teachings, he taught from the same scriptures that God told Moses to write, he taught God's teachings, God's teaching don't ever change, God doesn't change, that is what it means to be God.

  • 7 months ago

    He did fulfill the Law.

    No one else could or can.

    So He fulfilled it for us.

    Do you think you can do better than He? Or will you rather accept His work for you and live to Him?

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