Why are today's Christians continuing under the law (Jm 2:10) water baptizing "believing that Jesus is coming" (Acts 19:4)?

Update:

When Jesus promised He would fulfill (Matthew 5:17-18) and did when He came back in the glory of the Holy Ghost (Acts 1:2) as promised (John 14:18; 26)?

Didn't they hear "God's Word go out of His mouth" (Isaiah 55:11) saying "but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost" (Acts 1:5)?

Why did they listen to Peter saying "You shall be baptized with water" (Acts 2:38) who didn't REMEMBER until Acts 11:15-16?

That NULLIFIED (((ALL))) water baptisms throughout the Book of Acts!

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  • 4 weeks ago

    Christians keep the command of Jesus himself. "He who believes and is baptized shall be saved." Mark 16:16

    It' sad that many Evangelicals do not know or keep this commandment.  "If you love me, keep my commandments."  John 14:15. (I grew up a committed Evangelical. Never ever read the command of Jesus in Mark 16, nor heard a sermon on it. I was astonished when it finally hit me.)

    Really, Jesus' command is something you should underline so you'll read it from time to time.

    Forgive me.

    /Orthodox

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    • Williams4 weeks agoReport

      Really, you should start believing what IS WRITTEN rather than what a man teaches you.

      Where are your "SIGNS FOLLOWING" (Mk 16:17-18) since Jesus doesn't LIE (Num 23:19); Jer 1:12) and you say Mk 16:16 is referring to a water baptism and they "FOLLOWED" (Mk 16:17-18)?

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  • Anonymous
    4 weeks ago

    Water baptism was never part of OT law. Total bodily immersion is exclusively NT.

    The horse is dead, you can stop beating it now.

    1 Timothy 2:11-15 KJV — Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection. But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence. For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression. Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety.

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  • 4 weeks ago

    According to you GN, Philip was HS baptized and thus was able to perform miraculous signs (Ac 8:6).  But he was still water baptizing people and they were seeing great miracles (v. 12-13).  Now you are the one saying that Mk 16:16 is referring to HS baptism because of the miraculous signs it later mentions.  So here we have baptisms and miraculous signs.  But then you tell us that like Peter, Philip forgot all about HS baptism.  Well, if he forgot all about HS baptism, explain the miraculous signs.  You can't because your "Peter forgetting" false teaching totally contradicts Jn 14:26.

  • 4 weeks ago

    Acts 8:26-40 says that after evangelist Philip had explained the scriptures about Jesus being the Messiah to the Ethiopian, he requested water baptism as they came to a body of water. "Then both Philip and the eunuch went down into the water and Philip baptized him. When they came up out of the water, the Spirit of the Lord suddenly took Philip away..." Jesus has, indeed come! He has also returned to Heaven and will come back to Earth in great glory. Praise His name!

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  • 4 weeks ago

    the baptism of John was ordained of God, so if you conclude that it is works under the law, i would reprove you to change your beliefs and repent.

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