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Anonymous asked in Family & RelationshipsMarriage & Divorce · 2 months ago

If a wife does'nt have sex with her husband but had all sex acts with her exes and says that she does'nt do that as she loves her husband?

 and on asked by the husband gives the reason that she does'nt have sex with him because she loves him the most, then what does that mean? Is she trying to fool her husband?

Similarly, if a wife did all kinky sex acts with all her exes and enjoyed and explored it with everyone but does'nt do anything with her husband except once a month vanilla sex and when the husband found out about her past and asked her about it and about why she preffered to have more sex with her exes but not him then she gives the reason that does"nt do such acts with him because she loves him and does'nt want to lose him, but she did'nt have the fearto lose her exes so she explored everything with them, then what does that suggest? Is she fooling her husband here also?

4 Answers

  • Happy
    Lv 5
    2 months ago

    A sexy hore for everyone but you. Sucks to be you.

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  • RP
    Lv 7
    2 months ago

    Maybe she needed to sample all the flavors with those exes in order to realize her true favorite is vanilla.

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  • 2 months ago

    You should know the answer to that (and the so many other questions you keep posting about this - from your side, from the "best friend's" side, etc.) since you have been in that situation (supposedly) for a long time now, and have had heaps of answers telling you what to do.

    Can't live with it, and her past? Divorce her - for both your sakes.

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  • Ana
    Lv 6
    2 months ago

    Tell her “What if I told you that I WANT kinky sex with you, and that if you DONT have a lot of kinky sex with me, then you’ll lose me?”

    Then she won’t have a leg to stand on with her excuses

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