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Anonymous asked in Society & CultureReligion & Spirituality · 1 month ago

What did Jesus mean when he said "I AM"?

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  • 1 month ago
    Favourite answer

    Jesus was saying HE was GOD.  When Moses asked God what His Name was so He could tell His people the Jews, God said, "Tell them I AM THAT I AM sent you"  So Jesus - by saying His Name was "I AM" was saying HE IS GOD - which Jesus is.  He is our Creator. Everything was made by Him and for Him and nothing has been made without Him that has been made. (John 1:1-3)

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    • David
      Lv 7
      4 weeks agoReport

      Yep, I've met brothers and sisters in Christ on here these past 10 years whom I expect to see in Heaven.  And even though I've only seen there face a few times, I think I'll recognize them and share our common joy.

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  • 1 month ago

    Means God the almighty one, 

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  • 1 month ago

    The greek verse in John 8:58 continues the past tense into the entire verse.  He said  "Before Abraham came (PAST TENSE) into existence, I have been (not I AM)."

    Even if the Jews understood him correctly to mean that he lived before his life on earth, they would likely consider that blasphemy also, because Abraham lived about 2000 years before Jesus was born as a human.

    Jesus again affirmed his prehuman existence in his prayer to his Father-

    just before his death, Jesus said: “Father, glorify me alongside yourself with the glory which I had alongside you before the world was.” (John 17:5)

    Similarly, the greek phrase in John 1:18 does NOT say "who is himself God" - that was a blatant addition, adding to the additions that attempt to prove that Jesus is a second person of the trinity.

    There are many in the Bible that are called God or god - judges, angels, kings, human leaders, Satan and Jesus. We know who is who by their name, and there is only one Almighty God. Genesis 17:1; Psalm 83:16-18.    In the ancient koine greek, there weren't any capital letters, but when one is referring to the true God and Father of Jesus, the greek says "the god".  This distinction is clearly illustrated in Acts 12:21-23:

     21 On a set day, Herod clothed himself with royal raiment and sat down on the judgment seat and began giving them a public address. 22 Then the people who were assembled began shouting: “A god’s voice, and not a man’s!” 23 Instantly the angel of Jehovah struck him, because he did not give the glory to God, and he was eaten up with worms and died.

    EVERY translation that I have seen renders it that way - referring to Herod, he is "a god", because there is no "the" in front of "god", but regarding giving glory to God, the word is capitalized, because it says "the god" in Greek. 

    John 1:1 makes the same distinction, but trinitarian translators do not make that distinction there.  Jesus, the Word, is not the same as "the" God that he was with.

    So those translators mistranslated that verse in favor of an unscriptural tradition.

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    • Roberta B
      Lv 6
      1 month agoReport

      Perhaps, since you responded to my answer, in this way,it is because I am neither lost nor confused when it comes to the relationship between the Father and his Son Jesus, The Father is greater than the Son,despite the doctrines of people who insist otherwise  I ask that you check the references.

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  • Anonymous
    1 month ago

    The author of a later edition of John who made him say that meant that Jesus is divine:

    "No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known." John 1:18

    But there is also an older version within John that says he's just human:

    "Jesus said to them, “If God were your Father, you would love me, for I have come here from God. I have not come on my own; God sent me." John 8:42

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    • David4 weeks agoReport

      DONALD YOU KEEP CALLING THE BIBLE A LIE WHEN YOU SAY YOU KNOW CHRIST IS THE ONLY PERSON WHO EVER HAD THAT NAME OF J OR G ESUS BECAUSE YOU FOLLOW EVERYTHING BLINDLY THAT HAS BEEN AUTOMATACILLY FOLLOWED FOR CENTURIES THANKS TO BABYLON AS THE BIBLE CALLS IT

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  • 1 month ago

    Jesus is the Son of God. And to remain silent could be construed as a denial of his being the Christ. So Jesus courageously replies: “I am; and you persons will see the Son of man sitting at the right hand of power and coming with the clouds of heaven.” 

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    • David
      Lv 7
      1 month agoReport

      So, Roberta, Jesus called his Father "My God", yet when Thomas called Jesus "My God", he didn't mean it.  Talk about a double standard.

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  • 1 month ago

    Some people who object to Christians saying it meant that Jesus was showing Himself to be equal to the One who spoke to Moses from the burning bush claim that Jesus was simply identifying himself with the God of Exodus 3:14 but not claiming to be God. Now, if it was okay for Jesus to do that, and it doesn't mean He was actually claiming to be God, then they could do it too, could they not? They could call themselves "ego eimi" for they identify themselves with the God of the Hebrews, that they will be co-rulers with Christ in Heaven. Surely any human being who loves God and lives for God could identify themselves closely with God by saying, "Ego eimi" too! Or is it not the case that nobody would dare claim to be as closely linked to God as did Jesus when he used the "ego eimi" phrase? 

     

    The Jews who listened to Jesus also agreed that Jesus was identifying himself with the God of the OT. Which is why they accused him of blasphemy and tried to stone him to death. If Jesus had only been identifying himself with the God of the OT, they would never have been incensed with rage. It's how THEY understood the phrase that matters! They would have tried to stone anybody using that phrase of themselves. 

    Those who object to the full deity of Christ claim that the apostle Paul was not claiming to be the 'I Am' in 1 Corinthians 15:10. Of course he wasn't. The grammatical structure of Paul's sentence shows that - it is in no way similar to the grammatical structure of John 8:58 - except that Paul is also using present tense. Otherwise he would have said "I have been what I have been by the grace of God." Nonsense, of course! The Greek demands to be rendered present tense, and never past tense as does the New World Translation of the JWs! It is the tense that is key and it cannot be changed without doing violence to the original Greek text, which the NWT does.  Jesus was saying to those Jews that He existed before Abraham was even born, because Jesus made everything that was made - John 1:1-3

  • 1 month ago

    I AM is an English translation of the name of Jehovah. He was definitely claiming to be Jehovah incarnate.

  • Jake
    Lv 5
    1 month ago

    He was referring to His Divinity. A person can know numerous truths about Jesus by way of having true devotion to the Sacred Heart of Jesus.

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    • David4 weeks agoReport

      DONALD LIKES TO THINK WHEN THE BIBLE SAYS THE ALMIGHTY REWARDED CHRIST FOR STAYING TO HIM ON EARTH IT WAS REALLY A CASE OF THE ALMIGHTY REWARDING HIMSELF FOR STAYING LOYAL TO HIMSELF ALL THE TIME AND ITS JUST ONE PRIME EXAMPLE OF TRINITY NONSENSE

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  • Den B7
    Lv 7
    1 month ago

    It was during the last supper in response to the question, "Who's hungry?"

    So what he meant was that he was hungry.

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  • 1 month ago

    He referred to his Gospel which is Christ:

    CREATOR FATHER is GOD

    1. Christ(WORD)is the Son of God.

    2. Jesus is the son of man;

    3. Christ lived in Jesus as Christ can live in us. Jesus last name wasn't Christ.

    EVERYONE is born with a little Christ in him.

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    • antonius
      Lv 7
      1 month agoReport

      OK, then what was Jesus' last name?  Also who gave him the name of Christ?
      I know of nobody who was born with any kind of Christ in them.  So, what's your point?

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