When a person (like Nixon) has not yet yet been formally accused, much less tried, is a preemptive and nonspecific pardon like Ford’s valid?
- CliveLv 78 months ago
What does that mean in English?
- Anonymous8 months ago
Yes, it is. It's in the Constitution that way. There's no clause that says that the pardon can only be applied if there has been a conviction, a formal charge, or a "formal accusation," as you put it. It is, in fact, boilerplate for the President to pardon people prior to any kind of legal action, like when a President issues a written pardon to an intelligence agent or to military personnel for any crimes that may be committed during a classified mission, like murder or assassination of a foreign agent. This becomes a form of "get out of jail free card" should they ever get arrested or charged.