was the term " person of color" in any of the US founding documents?
- WOOWHOLv 78 months ago
was the TERM ... " person of color " in ANY of the US founding documents ?
before one could answer please SPECIFY
what the author is calling FOUNDING DOCUMENTS
and WHY is the term " person of color " a point of interest
for example the Declaration of INDEPENDENCE ( which is about the concept of a KING having the right to RULE RELIGIONS promotion that KINGS were ordained by GOD which the "founding fathers " were REJECTING )
addresses the term ... ALL MEN ..
. MALE HUMAN beings REALITY is the variation in skin color
according to the AMERICAN HERITAGE GUIDE
the term "person of Color " dates to 1796 was initially used to refer to LIGHT SKINNED people of MIXED African and European heritage
.....The US CONSTITUTION was ratified in 1789
in 1796 John Adams is elected the 2nd PRESIDENT
and Thomas Jefferson is the Vice president
the COUNTRY is only in its INFANCY
tells me that people were having SEXUAL intercourse ( consensual or non consensual ) resulting in reproduction
in South Carolina and deep south the term was used to
DISTINGUISH between SLAVES that were "mostly " Black or *****
and "FREE PEOPLE " who were "mulatto" or MIXED ..
... indicating SLAVE OWNERS were having sexual intercourse
with PEOPLE they PURCHASED and KEPT as SLAVES
which they viewed as PROPERTY and
"USED" for their SEXUAL DESIRES and Enjoyment
resulting in MIXED offspring with a variation in SKIN COLOR
its unlikely BLACK MALE slaves were or had access or opportunity
to engage in sexual intercourse or RAPE the FEMALES of their WHITE MASTERS
and if any relationship occurred initiated by a white female the premise was it was a crime of rape by the black male or an excuse charge to hang a black person
WHITE MALE SLAVE OWNERS were actually REDUCING
the " ALL WHITE " population many WHITE SLAVE masters eventually
REALIZED the more and more slaves one owned
made the ratio a problem say 1 to 10 50 100
and FEARED REVOLT and retaliation
one would only FEAR retaliation
because one was aware of the REALITY
what they were doing was WRONG
and would not want slavery imposed on themselves
according to S. Saris in the USA
there are two main racial divides
# 1 the BLACK _ WHITE delineation
# 2 that of WHITES and Everybody else
with the term whites being narrowly construed
- bluebellbkkLv 78 months ago
No, it wasn't.
- GregLv 58 months ago
No, that's a more recent terminology.
- oldcraggyguyLv 68 months ago
The closest we come to "person of color" is "all other persons" in the 3/5 compromise for calculating the number of people in a state. It is important to note, the constitution NEVER guaranteed initially one person one vote. If a man owned 100 slaves, he had 61 votes, his plus 3/5 of the number of the number of slaves that he owned.
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- John PLv 78 months ago
Probably not. In Britain I became aware of the expression probably in the 1970s. Before that people were simply "coloured", later "black". I associated the "n" word with American black people in historical times.
- Serene ELv 78 months ago
No, slavery was, saying it was just fine.
- Anonymous8 months ago
Yes it was and I still use it
- Anonymous9 months ago
You're so smart. I can barely stand it.
- Lapiz DominoesLv 79 months ago
Everyone is zome colour.
- 9 months ago
I did not get your point.