Ian asked in Society & CultureLanguages · 10 months ago

Why is French spelling not phonetic?

It’s standardized too. But that makes even less sense because why?

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  • 10 months ago
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    The spelling represents historical pronunciation. Spelling "generally corresponds to the pronunciation of c. 1100–1200 CE (the Old French period) rather than modern pronunciation." (Wikipedia) My French professor in college said that the retaining of the obsolete spelling was largely due to conservative French grammarians in the 18th century, who wanted the written language to maintain more resemblance to its Latin ancestry.

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    • Ian10 months agoReport

      That also explains why “Est, Es, and Et” are all spelled will silent letters. I do recognize all of them from Latin when it comes to the spelling, but all the consonants in these three words are silent.

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  • Anonymous
    10 months ago

    English is far less phonetic than french spelling, yet you're not complaining about that are you?

    Oh, you're just a xenophobe and think that all languages use the same American accent.

    Doesn't change that French makes perfect sense to everyone who speaks it. You're a bigot and are claiming it doesn't make sense. Xenophobes should die.

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