No. " If the force, coercion, or threat of force is not being used as a reason but as a fact or consequence, then it would not be fallacious, especially when a legitimate reason is given with the “threat”, direct or implied."
The threat of force is only part of a fallacy when it is used as the answer to a question rather than a real answer.
"Why does the money have to be in a bag?" "Put it in the bag or I will kill you!"
Here, the person didn't answer the question "why". So the answer is fallacious.