"Why cant somebody plainly explain to one of Jehovah's Witnesses how the resurrected and glorfied Jesus can be God and have a God at the same [time]?"
Because, while they may attempt to "plainly explain" it, such attempts do not align with Scripture.
Put another way, when JWs show such people what is recorded at John 1:18, which in ALL English Bibles commences, "No one [man] has seen God at any time," is that correct, or not? How many saw Jesus? Heaps, so Jesus cannot be God according to that scripture.
What about Jesus' own words at John 20:17 [NKJV]:
"Jesus said to her [Mary], “Do not cling to Me, for I have not yet ascended to My Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, ‘I am ascending to My Father and your Father, and to My God and your God.’”
Who does Jesus there say is OUR God?
Himself? No. Who, then?
His F A T H E R.
Let's re-emphasize that to get the point. Jesus stated to Mary that ****our God**** is his FATHER.
Yet when you present that to Trinitarians, they imply that Jesus didn't know what he was talking about and should have discussed the matter with the unbelieving, rash, outspoken and doubting Thomas before making such a statement. Why? Because they rely completely on Thomas' words just 11 verses later; one whose sayings are amply demonstrated [as in v'.25] NOT to be inspired, [and as is also evident from his rash outspokenness at John 11:16].
And what do we perceive takes place in heaven at 1 Corinthians 15:24-28:
"24 Next, the end, when he hands over the Kingdom to his God and Father, when he has brought to nothing all government and all authority and power. 25 For he must rule as king until God has put all enemies under his feet. 26 And the last enemy, death, is to be brought to nothing. 27 For God “subjected all things under his feet.” But when he says that ‘all things have been subjected,’ it is evident that this does not include the One who subjected all things to him. 28 But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone."
Let's analyze the pertinent text in those verses:
v.25: "For he [Jesus] must rule as king until God has put all enemies under his feet."
What part of Jesus is Jesus as king in that text, and what part of him is God who puts all things under his feet?
v.27: "For God “subjected all things under his feet.”
How does Jesus manage to be in two places, assuming two entirely different roles [one as the subjugator and one as the recipient of that subjugation]?
v.27 cont.. "But when he says that ‘all things have been subjected,’ it is evident that this does not include the One who subjected all things to him."
Huh? Who is "the One"? How do Trinitarians rationalize what that necessitates if they insist that Jesus is God?
It would require that Jesus subjected all things to himself, yes? So where would there be any need for v.27, or for that matter,
v.28:? "But when all things will have been subjected to him, then ***the Son himself will also subject himself*** to ***the One*** who subjected all things to him, that ***God may be all things to everyone***."
There is the answer. "The Son" [Jesus] is someone entirely distinct from "the One," who is identified there as being "God."
What a surprise, then, that 1 Corinthians 8:6 unambiguously states, "there is for us ***one God, the FATHER.***"
Thanks for your question.
Edit: @ Dzr: "Hector... YHWH isn't name in Hebrew, Greek or any known language."
Yes it is. At Isaiah 42:8 in the WLC it commences, "אֲנִי יְהוָה הוּא שְׁמִי" which contains the Hebrew Tetragrammaton and reads in English, "I am Jehovah, that is my name."
So from the Hebrew text itself, it is clear that " יְהוָה " [Yod He Waw (Vav) He] is God's **** name**** in Hebrew. From that ***name*** we get other Biblical names that are Theophoric, that is, they have attributions to the Divine Name in them, such as the long form of Jesus' Hebrew birth name, "Yehoshua" [Yeshua short form].
Yehoshua in Hebrew appears as " יְהוֹשֻׁעַ " comprising the letters Yod He Waw Shin Ayin [YHWSA].
Another Theophoric name is " יְהוֹרָם " - Yehoram: Yod He Waw Resh Mem [YHWRM].
Yet another is " יְהֹושָׁפָט " - Yod He Waw Shin Pe Teth [YHWSPT]. - Yehoshaphat.
If you are going to claim that YHWH is not a name in Hebrew or any other language because it has no vowels, that is because Hebrew is a consonantal only language where certain letters can indicate the appropriate vowel sounds. Accordingly, names like Yehoram [Jehoram] and Yehoshaphat [Jehoshaphat] are not somehow disqualified from inclusion in Scripture because they contain Latin alpha consonantal digits only.
If you deny that YHWH is a name, then if you value consistency at all, you would have to insist that all Hebrew names rendered into English are not actually names either. Try telling that to any Jew who reads and understands Hebrew, Dzr. And while you're at it, try telling that to all the English Bible translators who Anglicize those names by inserting a "J" as the first letter.
Piece of advice Dzr: Just because you may not understand how a language works doesn't make you an authority to say what within that language is a name or not.
And YHWH are the abbreviated Hebrew letters of God's personal name.