Simmo
Lv 4
Simmo asked in Arts & HumanitiesHistory · 1 decade ago

This link says Persia changed its name to Iran to please Hitler. Is that true?

http://www.oilcompanies.net/oil1.htm

At the end of World War II, the British-Persian Oil Company controlled the vast oil fields in Iran. The Persians had declared their alignment with Adolf Hitler's Nazi "Aryan Race" movement and were fully expecting German General Rommel to come rushing across Africa and "free" them from the British. They had even proclaimed their alignment with Hitler by changing the name of their country from Persia to "Aryan," (or "Iran" in the Farsi language), but the Germans failed to save them.

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  • Aras
    Lv 6
    1 decade ago
    Favourite answer

    Please don't use propagana sites.

    Iranians themselves have called their lands "Iran, Eran, or Iranzamin" since atleast 2000 B.C. They also called their empire(during the times they had one) "Iranzamin or Iranshahr"

    Most of the people outside of Iran, however, started to call it "Persia" after the Fars(A.K.A Persians, Parsa, or Pars) tribe that became the most powerful Iranian tribe.

    The Greeks were the first to call the Fars tribes "Persian" and their land Persia. After the Greeks many started to use this name as well.

    It's true that Iran is a cognate of Aryan and the people of Iran are racially and lingually "Aryans"(not Hitlers definition but Indo-European definition), but Iran became Iran's international name several years after Hitler's death.

  • Anonymous
    4 years ago

    Persia would be a fine name instead of Iran. The people of Iran speak Persian and are Persians, right? And Iran is next to the Persian Gulf too; maybe this is because Iran really is Persia. We don't call it the Iranian Gulf, do we? And if Iran, or Persia, were to get a good democratic government with human rights, it would be cause for joy. I'm sure all the Persians would celebrate.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    No, not at all. The name goes back to 600 BC. It was not called Iran but Persia until 1949. Almost 5 years after Hitler died. Shah Reza Pahlavi decreed that it could be referred to either way.

    Aryan has nothing to do with the name.

    Remember, these sites can be made up by anyone and almost every site can be edited by anyone. Do not trust what you read on a reference site.

    Source(s): I lived and worked there.
  • Prof
    Lv 6
    1 decade ago

    I agree that it is nothing to do with Hitler.Persia until 1949.Conspiracy theory ?

    Source(s): Teacher.
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  • 1 decade ago

    Yes that is true. It means land of Aryans. Uneducated people that give thumbs down because they are ignorant annoy me. Read up.

    Notwithstanding this inscriptional use of ērān to refer to the Iranian peoples, the use of ērān to refer to the geographical empire is also attested in the early Sassanid period. An inscription relating to Shapur I, Ardashir's son and immediate successor, includes regions which were not inhabited primarily by Iranians in Ērān regions, such as Armenia and the Caucasus."[29] In Kartir's inscriptions the high priest includes the same regions in his list of provinces of the antonymic Anērān.[29] Both ērān and aryān come from the Proto-Iranian term Aryānām, (Land) of the (Iranian) Aryas. The word and concept of Airyanem Vaejah is present in the name of the country Iran (Lit. Land of the Aryans) inasmuch as Iran (Ērān) is the modern Persian form of the word Aryānā

  • 5 years ago
  • 1 decade ago

    No, nothing to do with Hitler.

    www.oilcompanies.net seems to be an anti-Iranian propaganda site from what you've quoted.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Name_of_Iran

  • 1 decade ago

    utter rubbish

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