Question about english grammar???
hello everyone! I had been surfing the web, when i came across this site, which is all about english grammar. Upon visiting this web page a very big doubt arouse in my mind.....My question is which of this sentances is the right one ? "she could of had anything that she wants " or " she could have had anything that she wants" ??
I've used the second sentance quite often; so i wonder whether i have been making mistakes, as english isn't my first language i always come across lot of doubts. Thank you!
If you want to check out the web site on which i found this article about english grammar. Just Click on the link below
http://www3.telus.net/linguisticsissues/commonerro... Don't worry it's virus free
- teresathegreatLv 71 decade agoFavourite answer
"Could have" is correct; "Could of" is never correct.
"Could of" is a common mistake - the contraction of "could have" is "could've", which sounds very close to "could of." So many people confuse the correct spelling/grammar.
- AureenLv 51 decade ago
"She could have had anything that she wants" is correct. The other phrase using "of" is a common mistake some people make.
This is because the contraction "could`ve" is often used in the place of "could have". Therefore the phrase many say is "She could`ve had anything that she wants." If you say this out loud, you will understand why some people make the mistake of using "of" -- it sounds very similar to "´ve".
- D BLv 61 decade ago
I could have had
is the correct version
the other is a sloppy corruption
over the years people shortened the correct version to 'could uve' when speaking then corrupted that again to could of
ususally used by people who generally do not speak standard/correct English
- 1 decade ago
The second sentence is proper english. The first one is just using a preposition instead of a verb which is kinda lazy english.
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- ProfuyLv 71 decade ago
Don't worry. You were using the correct one.
She could have had ...
She could of had ... makes no sense, except that the pronunciation is exactly the same as in the sentence above.
If you were to transcribe these sentences in phonetics symbols (IPA) they would be the same.
/ ʃɪ kəd əv 'hæd / for both.
- Cosimo )O(Lv 71 decade ago
In fact, both of the sentences you quoted are wrong.
The first is completely unacceptable, as many users have correctly told you in no uncertain terms.
The second is merely incorrect, as the tenses in the two clauses do not follow the rules of tense agreement in English. After the past conditional in the main clause, "She could have had", the past tense is required in the subordinate clause - "she wanted". The present tense is not correct:
"She could have had anything she wanted."
(past conditional + past indicative)
"She could have anything she wants."
(conditional + present indicative)
- Anonymous1 decade ago
Actually, if you look at the site carefully, you will see that the caption should be the one under the example. So the first onen (i.e. 'of had...) is incorrect, while the second is correct.
- 1 decade ago
The sentence 'she could have had anything she wanted' is the correct one. You were probably confused by the sound of 'could've,' a common contraction between the words 'could' and 'have.'
- Anonymous1 decade ago
It's "could have had" there is no such thing as the first one. it's poorly spoken English that has been written down at some point by some fool who never paid attention in class.
- John PLv 75 years ago
Never, ever, "could of", nor "would of" nor any verb form directly with "of"! That is a misinterpretation of "could have" (could've) in the way that some people speak. No sane analysis of "could of" makes sense - it is always "could have".
You may indeed hear "could of" from some people, but you will never be wrong in avoiding "could of" in speech or in writing.