Did Jesus give authority for us to be God's creatures ... or ... God's sons ?
What does the Bible say in John 1: 12?
If Jesus knew that only 144,000 would be God's children, would Jesus not be making a misleading advertising by saying that He gave authority to all who accept Him to become the one and only and exclusively God's sons ?
What do you think ?
Let's get faculty of reasoning !
It's time, right?
Yes, the faculty of reasoning, ... this, this, this, are we going to use it?
Want some more help?
What does the Bible say in Galatians 3: 26?
If the apostle Paul knew that only 144,000 would be God's sons, would not Paul be making a misleading advertising by saying that all who exercise faith in Jesus are solely and exclusively the children of God?
Why did not Jesus say that all the NO anointed are given authority to become God's creatures and all the anointed ones are given authority to become God's sons ?
Why did not the apostle Paul say that all NO anointed ones who exercise faith in Jesus become God's creatures and all anointed ones become God's sons ?
Can you explain?
Why did Jesus generalize by saying that everyone, regardless of being anointed or not , becomes God's sons because they accept Jesus?
Why did the apostle Paul generalize by saying that all christians, regardless of whether or not they are anointed, become God's sons ?
Did Jesus and Paul know that only the faithful or prudent slave or GB could change the original meaning of the.. the Word of God
and give the correct understanding?
Well ... stop it!
So, how would the people who existed before 1870, when there was still no official "organization of Jehovah" as you have it today?
How did they interpret John 1: 12 and Galatians 3: 26?
Were they wrong?
Was they 1870 years before, misunderstanding John 1: 12 and Galatians 3: 26 believing in lies until the faithful and prudent slave or GB appeared in 1918 so that from this date alone they could understand the .. truth of God's Word and thus be saved?